TSPSC Group 1 Preliminary Answer Key 09/06/2024
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1. Which of the following statements about Raja Rammohan Roy is/are correct?
A. He favoured polygamy.
B. He established the Vedanta College in 1825.
Choose the correct answer:
Answer: B
2. Consider the following statements:
A. Mahatma Gandhi wrote a book, ‘Indian Opinion’, to apprise the British Government of the widespread discontent among Indians.
B. ‘Hind Swaraj’, written by Mahatma Gandhi in Gujarati in 1909 was proscribed by the Government of Bombay and then in 1910 it was published in English in London.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: A and B
3. Which of the following statements about the Indian National Army (I.N.A.) are correct?
A. I.N.A. had fighting brigades named after Gandhi, Subhas, and Rani Jhansi.
B. The slogans of I.N.A. were ‘Jai Hind’ and ‘Delhi Door Hai’ (Delhi is far).
C. Rashbehari Bose handed over the leadership to Subhas Chandra Bose.
D. Capt. Mohan Singh was the commander of the Indian National Army.
Choose the correct answer:
Answer:
4. Consider the following statements about religious conditions under Kakatiyas:
A. Shaivism flourished.
B. Jain Temples were destroyed.
C. No Vaishnavacharya was mentioned in any of the inscriptions of the Kakatiya rulers.
D. There was no rivalry between Shaivism and Vaishnavism in general.
Which of the above statements is correct?
Answer:
5. Match the following:
A. Bhavabhuti I. Devichandra
B. Harshavardhana II. Malatimadhava
C. Mahendra-Vikramavarman III. Mattavilasa
D. Visakhadatta IV. Nagananda
Choose the correct answer:
(3) A-II; B-IV; C-III; D-I
Answer:
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6. Arrange the following in chronological order according to their year of establishment:
A. Aligarh Scientific Society
B. Benares Debating Club
C. Bihar Scientific Society
D. Society for Translating European Sciences
E. Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science
Choose the correct order:
(1) D, E, A, B, C
Answer:
7. Which studio produced the first Telugu talkie film “Bhakta Prahlada”?
(1) Ranjit Movietone (2) Madan Theatres
(3) Bharat Movietone (4) Madras National Theatre
Answer: 4
8. Which among these paintings are by Raja Ravi Varma?
A. Lady Lost in Thought
B. Nair Woman
C. Bride and Two Companions
D. Lady Giving Alms at the Temple
The correct answer is:
(1) B, C and D only (2) A, B and D only
(3) A, B and C only (4) A, C and D only
Answer:
9. Which of the following schemes is aimed at promoting chemical-free natural farming?
(1) Bharatiya Prakritik Krishi Paddhati
(2) Farmer Producer Organisation Scheme
(3) Agricultural Mechanization Scheme
(4) Viksit Kisan Bharat Scheme 2.0
10. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to Telangana Economy, as per the data provided in Telangana Economy Provisional Estimates – 2023 published by the Directorate of Economics and Statistics of Government of Telangana?
A. Gross State Domestic Product of Telangana at current prices was more than thirteen lakh crore rupees in 2022 – 23.
B. Telangana’s Industrial sector achieved a growth rate of 13% in 2022 – 23.
Choose the correct answer:
(1) A only (2) Both A and B
(3) B only (4) Neither A nor B
11. Which one of the following statements is/are true about the progress of the Sustainable Development Goal 2 (SDG 2)?
A. The world is not on track to achieve zero hunger target by 2030.
B. The Burden of malnutrition in all its forms remains a challenge.
Choose the correct answer:
(1) A only (2) Both A and B
(3) B only (4) Neither A nor B
12. Which of the following statements are true in relation to the Five Year Plans of India?
A. One of the main objectives of the 5th Five Year Plan was ‘Removal of Poverty’.
B. To achieve Growth with Stability was one of the objectives of the 4th Five Year Plan.
C. The focus of the 7th Plan was on Food, Work and Productivity.
D. The main objective of 9th Plan was to achieve Inclusive Growth.
Choose the correct answer:
(1) B, C and D only (2) A and D only
(3) A, B and C only (4) A, B, C and D
13. As per the Telangana Socio Economic Outlook – 2023, which of the following pairs related to the district and the Gross District Domestic Product (GDDP) of that district in 2021 – 22 (First Revised Estimates) at current prices is/are correctly matched?
Name of District: GDDP (in ₹ lakh crores) approximately
A. Hyderabad: ₹ 1∙86
B. Rangareddy: ₹ 2∙20
C. Medchal-Malkajgiri: ₹ 1∙20
D. Adilabad: ₹ 1∙05
Choose the correct answer:
(1) A, B and D only (2) B and C only
(3) C and D only (4) A only
14. As per the National Family Health Survey – 5, arrange the following States in descending order in terms of the percentage of multidimensionally poor in total population during 2019 – 21:
A. Meghalaya B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Jharkhand D. Bihar
Choose the correct order:
(1) A, B, C, D (2) D, C, A, B
(3) B, C, D, A (4) D, A, B, C
15. According to the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey 2022-23, which of the following statements are true?
A. Chhattisgarh has the lowest rural and urban Monthly Per Capita Expenditure (MPCE).
B. Rural-urban difference in average MPCE is the lowest in Meghalaya.
C. Sikkim has the highest rural and urban MPCE.
D. Chandigarh has the lowest MPCE in urban areas.
Choose the correct answer:
(1) A and B only
(2) A and C only
(3) B and C only
(4) B and D only
16. Which of the following statements related to Interim Union Budget 2024-25 are true?
A. In the total outlay of the Union Budget, the share of Gender budget is more than six percent.
B. Estimated Fiscal Deficit is more than five percent of Gross Domestic Product.
C. Tax receipts are estimated at less than 25 lakh crore rupees.
D. The increase in Gender budget allocation is 20% more in 2024-25 budget as compared to the budget estimates of 2023-24.
Choose the correct answer:
(1) A and B only
(2) C and D only
(3) B and C only
(4) A, B and D only
17. As per the vote on account budget of Telangana for the financial year 2024-25, presented to the State Assembly on 10th February, 2024, the estimated total expenditure is approximately:
(1) ₹2.95 lakh crore
(2) ₹2.76 lakh crore
(3) ₹2.40 lakh crore
(4) ₹2.39 lakh crore
18. As per the data provided in Telangana Socio Economic Outlook 2023, the share of Construction sector (a sub-sector of Secondary sector) in Total Gross State Value Added of Secondary sector of Telangana (at current prices and provisional advance estimates) in 2022-23 was around:
(1) 27%
(2) 19%
(3) 14%
(4) 23%
19. Consider the following statements related to the Mumbai Trans Harbour Link (MTHL):
A. It is a Road Bridge connecting Mumbai city with Navi Mumbai.
B. It begins in Parel, South Mumbai and crosses Thane Creek and terminates at Chirle Village, near Nhava Sheva.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(1) A only
(2) Both A and B
(3) B only
(4) Neither A nor B
20. Consider the following statements:
A. Aswaraopeta Assembly constituency area extends to the easternmost part/boundary of Telangana State.
B. Adilabad Assembly constituency area extends to the northernmost part/boundary of Telangana State.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(1) A only
(2) Both A and B
(3) B only
(4) Neither A nor B
21. According to Köppen’s climatic classification, a larger area of the Telangana State falls under:
(1) Tropical Savanna climate (Aw)
(2) Monsoon climate (Am)
(3) Humid Sub-tropical climate (CWa)
(4) Hot semi-arid climate (BShw)
22. Consider the following statements:
A. Koulasnala and Bogguvalagu irrigation projects are located in the Godavari basin.
B. Koteapally Vagu and Asif Nahar irrigation projects are located in the Krishna basin.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(1) A only
(2) Both A and B
(3) B only
(4) Neither A nor B
23. Arrange the following districts in ascending order in terms of their Female Literacy Rate (%) based on 2011 Census:
A. Nagarkurnool
B. Medak
C. Jogulamba Gadwal
D. Narayanpet
E. Wanaparthy
Choose the correct order:
(1) C, D, A, B, E
(2) C, D, E, B, A
(3) D, A, C, E, B
(4) C, A, D, E, B
24. Match the following National parks and their States:
National Park State
A. Tadoba National Park I. Karnataka
B. Madhav National Park II. Uttar Pradesh
C. Dudhwa National Park III. Maharashtra
D. Bandipur National Park IV. Madhya Pradesh
Choose the correct answer:
(1) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I
(2) A-I; B-IV; C-II; D-III
(3) A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II
(4) A-III; B-II; C-IV; D-I
25. The terms ‘Aus’, ‘Aman’, and ‘Boro’ are related to which crop grown in a year?
(1) Three crops of wheat grown in Punjab
(2) Three crops of cotton grown in Maharashtra
(3) Three crops of paddy grown in West Bengal
(4) Three crops of maize grown in Rajasthan
26. Which of the following statements about Continental Shelf are correct?
A. Continental Shelves are continental marginal areas submerged under oceanic water.
B. Continental Shelves are very wide and extensive along the western coast of South America where high mountains are very close and parallel to the coast.
C. Extensive Continental Shelves are found around Newfoundland.
D. Many marginal seas are located on the Continental Shelves of North Atlantic.
Choose the correct answer:
(1) A and B only
(2) A, C and D only
(3) A, B and C only
(4) A, B, C and D
27. Consider the following two statements:
Assertion (A):
Orographic precipitation results when moving moisture-laden air strikes a topographic barrier and is forced upwards.
Reason (R):
Most of the precipitation falls on the windward side of the barrier and the leeward side is likely to be dry.
Choose the correct answer:
(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
28. Which of the following fluvial landforms are associated with rejuvenated topography?
A. Incised meander
B. Entrenched meander
C. Knickpoint
D. Natural levees
Choose the correct answer:
(1) A, B, C and D
(2) A, C and D only
(3) B, C and D only
(4) A, B and C only
29. Which of the following climate is also known as ‘Sclerophyll’ ecosystem or biome?
(1) Mediterranean climate
(2) Equatorial climate
(3) Tundra climate
(4) Monsoon climate
30. Consider the following statements with reference to the mineral ‘manganese’ in India:
A. Odisha is the state with the highest reserves in India.
B. It is an essential input in steel-making in alloy form.
C. Pyrolusite is the ore of manganese.
D. The Gondite and Kodurite deposits are rich in manganese ore.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(1) A only
(2) A, B and C only
(3) A and B only
(4) A, B, C and D
31. Match the following about Drinking Water Standards, (BIS 10500:2012) with acceptable limits:
| Metal | Acceptable limit (mg L^(-1)) |
|-------|------------------------------|
| A. Fe | I. 5.0 |
| B. Mn | II. 0.3 |
| C. Cu | III. 0.05 |
| D. Zn | IV. 0.1 |
Choose the correct answer:
(1) A-I; B-III; C-I; D-IV
(2) A-I; B-IV; C-II; D-III
(3) A-II; B-IV; C-III; D-I
(4) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I
32. Sort the following steps in the correct order of photochemical smog production:
A. Emission of NOx and VOCs.
B. Ozone production due to the reaction between NOx and VOCs.
C. Ozone reacts with other pollutants and forms NO2 and O2.
D. Peroxy Acyl Nitrate (PAN) is produced by the reaction between NO2 and hydrocarbons.
Choose the correct order:
(1) A, D, C, B
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) A, C, B, D
(4) A, D, B, C
33. Which of the following statements are true about greenhouse gases?
A. Greenhouse gases absorb long wave radiation from the Earth.
B. The greenhouse effect is responsible for heating of the Earth’s surface and atmosphere.
C. The greenhouse effect causes El Nino effect.
D. Few of the direct greenhouse gases under Kyoto Protocol are CO2, CH4, SF6 and SO2.
The correct answer is:
(1) A and B only
(2) A, C and D only
(3) B and C only
(4) A, B and C only
34. Match the commonly used modern drugs with their plant sources:
Drug:
- A. Penicillin
- B. L-DoPa
- C. Quinine
- D. Taxol
Plant Source:
- I. Velvet bean
- II. Yellow cinchona
- III. Penicillium fungi
- IV. Pacific yew
Choose the correct answer:
1. A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II
2. A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV
3. A-IV; B-III; C-I; D-II
4. A-III; B-I; C-II; D-IV
35. Collapsing of polar vortex contributes to the stabilization of the ozone layer because it:
1. Allows ozone depleting chemicals to accumulate
2. Accelerates ozone depletion reactions
3. Disperses ozone-destroying forms of chlorine
4. Triggers the release of additional chlorine into the stratosphere
36. Select the correct set of statements regarding the effects of climate change:
1. Increased sea level, more intense hurricanes, species migration
2. Decrease in ocean’s acidity, reduced CO2 emission, increased glacier mass
3. Decrease in global temperatures, increased sea ice, expansion of tropical forests
4. Reduced agricultural productivity, decrease in renewable energy sources, increased polar bear populations
37. Match the following lift irrigation projects/barrage with the rivers:
List I:
- A. Mahatma Gandhi Kalwakurthy Lift Irrigation Project
- B. Nizam Sagar Project
- C. J. Chokka Rao Devadula Lift Irrigation Scheme
- D. Chanaka-Korata Barrage
List II:
- I. Godavari
- II. Krishna
- III. Penganga
- IV. Manjeera
Choose the correct answer:
1. A-II; B-I; C-IV; D-III
2. A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III
3. A-II; B-I; C-III; D-IV
4. A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV
38. Consider the following in relation to the ‘Gruha Jyothi’ scheme of the Government of Telangana:
A. All the residents are eligible for free electricity up to 200 units per month, either for domestic or petty business.
B. DISCOMs will send the details of subsidy to be received in the scheme by 20th of every month and Government will release the subsidy amount to DISCOMs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. A only
2. Both A and B
3. B only
4. Neither A nor B
39. According to the Space Tech Framework April 2022, of the Government of Telangana, which of the following are part of the Space Market Value Chain?
A. Launch Services including Teleport and Mission Control
B. Satellite Manufacturing/Launcher Manufacturing
C. Satellite Operations and Capacity Services
D. Establishing Space Stations in the Orbit
Choose the correct answer:
1. A, B and C only
2. A, B, C and D
3. B, C and D only
4. B and C only
40. Consider the following in relation to the supply of LPG domestic cylinder at subsidised rates under the Mahalakshmi Scheme:
A. The scheme is applicable to white ration card holders.
B. The State Government would transfer the required amount to the Oil Marketing Companies (OMC) on an annual basis.
C. The OMCs on their part would transfer the subsidy amount by Direct Benefit Transfer to the beneficiaries.
D. The supply is limited to average of the last five years of consumption of cylinders by the respective household.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. A, B, C and D
2. A and C only
3. B and C only
4. A and D only
41. Arrange the following BIMSTEC Secretaries General in chronological order:
A. Sumith Nakandala
B. Indra Mani Pandey
C. Tenzin Lekphell
D. M. Shahidul Islam
Choose the correct order:
1. A, D, C, B
2. A, B, C, D
3. C, B, A, D
4. D, A, B, C
42. Which of the following statements about the United Nations (UN) are correct?
A. The United Nations has six principal organs.
B. The General Assembly is composed of representatives from all member states, each of which has an equal vote.
C. The International Criminal Court (ICC), being an organ of UN, settles disputes between nations.
D. The main function of UN Economic and Social Council is facilitating discussion and policy recommendations for the world’s economic and social issues.
Choose the correct answer:
1. A and B only
2. A, B and D only
3. C and D only
4. A, B and C only
43. Consider the following statements in connection with the Bretton Woods Conference:
A. This conference was held in 1944, at New Hampshire, USA, to discuss the post-war international economic order.
B. The conference paved the way for the formation of International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. A only
2. Both A and B
3. B only
4. Neither A nor B
44. Which of the following is marked by the Bandung Conference, 1955?
1. Panchsheel Agreement between India and China
2. The formation of ASEAN
3. The beginning of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM)
4. Declaration on the establishment of a New International Economic Order (NIEO)
45. Consider the following statements in relation to the Belt and Road Initiative (BRI):
A. It is a global infrastructure project that was developed and launched by China in 2013.
B. It is aimed at strengthening China’s soft power in Asia, Africa and Europe by establishing land and sea trade routes.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
1. Only A is true
2. Both A and B are true
3. Only B is true
4. Neither A nor B are true
46. Which of the following organisation has jurisdiction over the Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide, 1948, also known as Genocide Convention?
1. International Court of Justice (ICJ)
2. International Criminal Court (ICC)
3. Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA)
4. United Nations General Assembly (UNGA)
47. Covaxin, India's indigenous COVID-19 vaccine, was developed by:
I. Bharat Biotech
II. Serum Institute of India Pvt. Ltd.
III. Pharmacy Council of India – AstraZeneca
IV. Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) – National Institute of Virology (NIV)
Choose the correct answer:
1. I and IV
2. I and III
3. II and III
4. II and IV
48. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian lunar lander that successfully touched down on the lunar surface:
A. Its name was Chandrayaan-2.
B. It was launched from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre on 14th July, 2023.
C. A lunar touchdown occurred on 23rd August, 2023 just after 6:00 PM IST.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. A and C only
2. A and B only
3. B and C only
4. C only
49. Raman Research Institute is located at X, India and was founded by Y in 1948. X and Y are respectively:
1. Bengaluru, C.V. Raman
2. Trivandrum, C.V. Raman
3. Bengaluru, Vikram Sarabhai
4. Trivandrum, Vikram Sarabhai
50. Chandrayaan-2 carried eight experiment payloads on board for studying surface geology, composition and exospheric measurements of Moon. One of the experiment payloads is CLASS. Which of the statements are not true?
A. CLASS is Chandrayaan-2 Large Area Sensitive X-ray Spectrometer.
B. CLASS measures the Moon’s X-ray Fluorescence (XRF) spectra.
C. XRF technique will detect major elements such as Mg, Al, Si, Ca, Ti, etc.
D. CLASS is an imaging spectrometer.
Choose the answer:
1. A and B only
2. C and D only
3. B and C only
4. A and D only
51. Consider the following statements related to India’s National Science Day:
A. It is celebrated every year on February 28th.
B. It commemorates the day of the announcement of the discovery of the Raman Effect.
C. The official theme for the year 2024 was “Global Science for Global Wellbeing”.
D. The official theme for the year 2024 was “Indigenous Technologies for Viksit Bharat”.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. B, C and D only
2. A and C only
3. A, B and D only
4. A, C and D only
What is the name of the Central Programme launched to promote Artificial Intelligence in India and beyond?
AI4Bharat
BHIMAI
INDIAai
VIKASai
Answer:
(3) INDIAai
Arrange the names of the following Nobel Laureates in the chronological order of their receiving the prizes:
A. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan
B. Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar
C. C.V. Raman
D. Har Gobind Khorana
Choose the correct order:
C, D, B, A
C, B, A, D
A, B, D, C
A, C, D, B
Answer:
(2) C, B, A, D
Arrange in the sequence, the ISRO rockets in order of their payload (low to high):
I. Satellite Launch Vehicle (SLV-3)
II. Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV)
III. Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV-XL)
IV. Augmented Satellite Launch Vehicle (ASLV)
Choose the correct answer:
I, IV, III, II
I, II, III, IV
I, III, IV, II
I, III, II, IV
Answer:
(1) I, IV, III, II
Question 55:
Yellow Revolution is related to:
Jute fiber production
Poultry and meat production
Egg production
Oilseed production
Answer:
(4) Oilseed production
Question 56:
Which one of the following is currently the leading energy storage system type for use in electric vehicles?
Lead-acid batteries
Nickel-metal hydride batteries
Lithium-ion batteries
Ultracapacitors
Answer:
(3) Lithium-ion batteries
Question 57:
According to India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2021, the percentage of the country’s geographic area covered by forests is approximately:
19.1%
23.1%
21.7%
25.6%
Answer:
(3) 21.7%
Question 58:
Which of the following symmetry is not found in animals?
Radial symmetry
Asymmetry
Bilateral symmetry
Circular symmetry
Answer:
(4) Circular symmetry
Question 59:
Match the following satellites with the year of their launching:
Satellite Year of Launching
A. Bhaskara-II I. 1988
B. GSAT-10 II. 1981
C. IRS-1A III. 1990
D. INSAT-1D IV. 2011
V. 2012
Choose the correct answer:
A-IV; B-V; C-II; D-I
A-II; B-III; C-I; D-IV
A-II; B-V; C-I; D-III
A-V; B-II; C-IV; D-I
Answer:
(3) A-II; B-V; C-I; D-III
Question 60:
The core loading of India’s first indigenous Fast Breeder Reactor was conducted on 4th March, 2024 at:
Kaiga, Karnataka
Narora, Uttar Pradesh
Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu
Tarapur, Maharashtra
Answer:
(3) Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu
### Question 61:
Which of the following hormone is insect specific and not exclusively a plant hormone?
1. Auxin
2. Gibberellin
3. Juvenile
4. Cytokinin
### Question 62:
Consider the following statements:
A. A well-known Indian statistician P.C. Mahalanobis is greatly popular for introducing new methods of sampling.
B. Meghnad Saha was a geographer best known for his development of the Saha equation, used to describe physical conditions in Geography.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. A only
2. Both A and B
3. B only
4. Neither A nor B
### Question 63:
Consider the following programmes by the Department of Science & Technology to support Science and Technology:
A. Strengthening, Upscaling and Nurturing Local Innovations for Livelihood
B. Technology Interventions for Disabled and Elderly
C. Tribal Science Plan
D. Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research
Which of the above are correct?
1. A, B and D only
2. A, B and C only
3. C and D only
4. B, C and D only
### Question 64:
Consider the following statements about India’s Pharmaceutical Sector:
Assertion (A):
The Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) educates the public about the usage of the Jan Aushadhi generic medicines.
Reason (R):
The Government of India has set a target to increase the number of Pradhan Mantri Janaushadhi Kendras to 10,000 by March, 2024.
Choose the correct answer:
1. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
2. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
### Question 65:
Jal Jeevan Mission is a Government of India programme. Which of the following statements are correct about Jal Jeevan Mission?
A. 'Har Ghar Jal' initiative was launched in 2019.
B. Goa became the first certified Har Ghar Jal State in August 2022.
C. Har Ghar Jal initiative is set to provide all rural households with safe drinking water through taps by 2025.
D. More than 73.7% households are reported to have tap water supply as on 30.01.2024.
Choose the correct answer:
1. A and B only
2. A, B and D only
3. A, B and C only
4. A, C and D only
66. Match the following Acts/Rules in India with respect to their year of passing:
| Act/Rule in India | Year of passing |
|-----------------------------------------------------------------------|-----------------|
| A. Forest (Conservation) Act | I. 2010 |
| B. National Green Tribunal Act | II. 2016 |
| C. Wild Life (Protection) Act | III. 2002 |
| D. Hazardous Wastes (Management, Handling and Transboundary Movement) | IV. 1972 |
| First Amendment Rules | |
| E. Biological Diversity Act | V. 1980 |
| | VI. 2020 |
Choose the correct answer:
1. (1) A-V; B-I; C-IV; D-III; E-II
2. (2) A-VI; B-V; C-IV; D-II; E-III
3. (3) A-I; B-IV; C-V; D-III; E-II
4. (4) A-V; B-I; C-IV; D-II; E-III
67. Match the following diseases with their carrier type:
| Disease | Carrier type |
|---------------|------------------|
| A. Cholera | I. Air-borne |
| B. Filaria | II. Food-borne |
| C. Tuberculosis| III. Vector-borne |
| | IV. Water-borne |
Choose the correct answer:
1. (1) A-IV; B-I; C-III
2. (2) A-II; B-IV; C-I
3. (3) A-IV; B-III; C-I
4. (4) A-II; B-IV; C-III
68. Identify the correct statement(s) among the following:
A. The Indian Ministry of External Affairs described the first Pokhran test as a peaceful nuclear explosion.
B. This nuclear test was code-named 'Smiling Buddha'.
Choose the correct answer:
1. (1) A only
2. (2) Both A and B
3. (3) B only
4. (4) Neither A nor B
69. Match the following vitamin deficiencies with their associated health problems:
| Vitamin deficiency | Health problem |
|--------------------|-----------------|
| A. Vitamin A | I. Beriberi |
| B. Vitamin B1 | II. Night blindness |
| C. Vitamin D | III. Scurvy |
| D. Vitamin C | IV. Rickets |
Choose the correct answer:
1. (1) A-II; B-I; C-III; D-IV
2. (2) A-II; B-I; C-IV; D-III
3. (3) A-I; B-III; C-II; D-IV
4. (4) A-III; B-II; C-I; D-IV
70. Consider the following statements:
A. Jayapasenani referred to a dance form called Kollata in his work "Nrittaratnavali".
B. This dance was performed by Dommaras in Telangana.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. (1) A only
2. (2) Both A and B
3. (3) B only
4. (4) Neither A nor B
71. Consider the following statements:
A. Baddegeswara temple is built at Vemulawada.
B. 'Kalyanakaraka' was a book on medicine in Prakrit.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. (1) A only
2. (2) Both A and B
3. (3) B only
4. (4) Neither A nor B
72. Consider the following statements:
A. At Srisailam, God Mallikarjuna was called Chenchuramayya.
B. Tikkana propagated the Harihara cult in his Mahabharata.
C. 'Anantarundhati Vrata' was an important activity during the Kakatiya period.
D. The Panditaradhya matha was located at Tirupati.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. (1) A and B only
2. (2) B and C only
3. (3) A and C only
4. (4) C and D only
73. Consider the following statements:
A. Pampa Kavi's 'Vikramarjunavijaya' throws some light on Mudigonda Chalukyas.
B. Krivvaka inscription mentions the conflict between Mudigonda Chalukyas and Rashtrakutas.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. (1) A only
2. (2) Both A and B
3. (3) B only
4. (4) Neither A nor B
74. Who among the following was the author of "Prataparudra Yasobhushanam"?
1. (1) Vidyanatha
2. (2) Iswara Suri
3. (3) Mallinatha
4. (4) Sakalya Malla
75. Name the foreign traveller who visited Golconda in the month of 'Muharram' and reported the clashes between the Shia and Sunni sects of Muslims.
1. (1) Jean de Thévenot
2. (2) François Bernier
3. (3) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
4. (4) Duarte Barbosa
76. Consider the following statements:
A. The Qutb Shahi style of architecture was a mixture of Persian, Hindu and Mughal styles.
B. The Bala Hisar Gate has the figures and emblems of Hindu mythology.
C. During the time of Abul Hasan, a temple at Anantagiri was renovated.
D. Shias Emblem of Five is inscribed on Charakamans.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. (1) A and B only
2. (2) A, C and D only
3. (3) B and C only
4. (4) B and D only
77. Identify the correct pair of the following:
1. (1) Suravaram Pratapa Reddy - Golconda Panditula Sanchika
2. (2) Punna Anjaiah - Neelagiri Kavula Sanchika
3. (3) Kodati Narayana Rao - Bala Sundari
4. (4) Rallapalli Anantha Krishna Sastry - Palle Patalu
78. Arrange the following organisations in chronological order of their establishment:
A. Matangi Sabha
B. Arundatiya Mahasabha
C. Ambedkar Youth League
D. Munnurukapu Mahasabha
Choose the correct order:
1. (1) C, B, A, D
2. (2) C, D, B, A
3. (3) A, B, D, C
4. (4) B, C, D, A
79. Arrange the following institutions in Hyderabad in chronological order of their inception:
A. The School of Engineering
B. St. George's Grammar School
C. Madarasa-i-Aliya
D. Dar-ul-Uloom Oriental High School
Choose the correct order:
1. (1) B, D, A, C
2. (2) B, C, D, A
3. (3) D, B, C, A
4. (4) A, B, C, D
80. Match the following authors with their works:
| Author | Work |
|-----------------|-----------------------|
| A. Singama Nayaka | I. Chandodarapanam |
| B. Peddana | II. Vikramarka Charitra |
| C. Ananta | III. Ratnapancalika |
| D. Jakkana | IV. Kavyaankara Cudamani|
Choose the correct answer:
1. (1) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I
2. (2) A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II
3. (3) A-III; B-IV; C-II; D-I
4. (4) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV
81. Consider the following statements about Ikshvaku Sri Shantamula:
A. He patronised Vedic Religion.
B. He performed Asvamedha yagna at Jaggaiapet.
C. He had donated Hiranyas to Buddhist Sanghas and Jain Basadis.
D. He was a devotee of Mahasena Virupaksha.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
1. (1) A and B
2. (2) B and D
3. (3) B and C
4. (4) C and D
82. Which of the following was the Mahasanghika centre during the Vishnukundin period in Telangana?
1. (1) Bavapur
2. (2) Kallacheruvu
3. (3) Keesara
4. (4) Indrapalanagaram
83. Consider the following statements:
A. Fourfold division of the society had taken shape only after the Satavahana period.
B. The Joint family system was not followed during the Satavahana period.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. (1) A only
2. (2) Both A and B
3. (3) B only
4. (4) Neither A nor B
84. What is the Buddhist prayer hall called?
1. (1) Stupa
2. (2) Chaitya
3. (3) Vihara
4. (4) Arama
85. Which of the following statements about National Food Security Act, 2013 (NFSA) is/are correct?
A. It provides coverage up to 75% of the total rural population.
B. It covers the two categories of beneficiaries, i.e. Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) households and the priority households.
C. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are not entitled to get a free meal at the local Anganwadi centres, as well as the maternity benefits.
D. It includes only mid-day-meal schemes.
Choose the correct answer:
1. (1) A and B only
2. (2) A, B, C and D
3. (3) B only
4. (4) A and D only
86. Which of the following statements about the objectives of Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY) are correct?
A. To improve socio-economic developmental indicators by ensuring adequate infrastructure and requisite services in the SC dominated villages.
B. To increase literacy and encourage enrollment of SCs in school and higher educational institutions with residential facilities.
C. To reduce poverty of the SC communities by generating additional employment opportunities through skill development.
D. It is a merged scheme of three Centrally sponsored yojanas namely – Pradhan Mantri Abhyuday Gram Yojana (PMAGY), Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana (BJRCY) and Atal Vayo Abhyuday Yojana (AVYAY).
Choose the correct answer:
1. A and B only
2. A, B, C and D
3. A, B and C only
4. A and D only
87. Match the following health missions with the launching year:
| Name of Health Mission | Launching Year |
|----------------------------------------------|----------------|
| A. National Rural Health Mission | I. 2018 |
| B. National AYUSH Mission | II. 2008 |
| C. National Mission on Medicinal Plants | III. 2005 |
| D. National Health Protection Mission | IV. 2014 |
Choose the correct answer:
1. A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II
2. A-IV; B-II; C-III; D-I
3. A-II; B-I; C-IV; D-III
4. A-III; B-IV; C-II; D-I
88. Which Ministry inaugurated 'Garima Greh', a shelter home for transgender persons?
1. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
2. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
3. Ministry of Women and Child Development
4. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
89. Which of the following Article of the Indian Constitution is not related to economic safeguards provided to the Scheduled Castes?
1. Article 23
2. Article 24
3. Article 46
4. Article 34
119. Arrange the following sectors/items in ascending order based on proposed allocations (in ₹ crores) to these sectors/items in Telangana State vote on account budget for the financial year 2024 - 25 presented to the State Legislature on 10th February, 2024:
A. SC Welfare
B. Capital Expenditure
C. Education
D. Medical and Health
Choose the correct order:
1. A, B, D, C
2. D, A, C, B
3. D, C, A, B
4. B, A, C, D
120. Which of the following two countries conducted a Joint Military Exercise "SADA TANSEEQ" during January – February 2024?
1. Iran – Kazakhstan
2. India – Saudi Arabia
3. India – Afghanistan
4. Pakistan – Tanzania
121. Which of the following statements about Gaganyaan are true?
A. LVM-3 rocket is the launch vehicle for Gaganyaan mission.
B. It consists of solid stage, liquid stage and cryogenic stage.
C. It has an Orbital Module (OM) which comprises of Crew Module (CM) and Service Module (SM).
D. It envisages demonstration of human space flight capabilities by launching crew of 5 to the Earth's orbit at 500 kilometers.
Choose the correct answer:
1. A, B and C only
2. A and B only
3. B and C only
4. B and D only
122. In which country was the Conference of Parties (COP-26) held?
1. Egypt
2. Saudi Arabia
3. Glasgow, UK
4. Australia
123. Arrange the following States in descending order based on percentage of Geographical Area under Recorded Forest Area (RFA) in 2021 as per the India – State of Forest Report – 2021 published by the Forest Survey of India:
A. Nagaland
B. Sikkim
C. Mizoram
D. Arunachal Pradesh
Choose the correct order:
1. A, B, D, C
2. B, D, A, C
3. B, A, D, C
4. D, B, A, C
124. Which of the following statements about Agni-5 are correct?
A. It uses a three-stage solid-fuelled engine.
B. It is capable of striking targets at ranges up to 2000 kilometers only.
C. It is indigenously developed by DRDO.
D. It uses Multiple – Dependable Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MDRV) technology.
Choose the correct answer:
1. A and B only
2. A, C and D only
3. A, B and C only
4. A and C only
125. Who was appointed as the National Icon for Voter Awareness and Education for the Election Commission of India in October 2023?
1. Pankaj Tripathi
2. Sonu Sood
3. Rajkummar Rao
4. Virat Kohli
126. Who among the following from Telangana State was conferred Padma Shri award for the year 2024 in the field of Literature and Education?
1. Harish Nayak
2. Uma Maheswari
3. Omprakash Sharma
4. Kethavath Somlal
127. Which country hosted the 8th International Maritime Security Conference 2023?
1. Philippines
2. Australia
3. Norway
4. Singapore
128. Which of the following statements related to Aditya-L1 is/are true?
A. The orbit of Aditya-L1 is located roughly 15 million kilometers away from the Earth.
B. The mission will help us in understanding Coronal Mass Ejections.
Choose the correct answer:
1. A only
2. Both A and B
3. B only
4. Neither A nor B
129. Match the following in relation to 2023 Nobel Prizes:
| Name of the person | Subject/Field |
|---------------------------|----------------------|
| A. Jon Fosse | I. Physics |
| B. Narges Mohammadi | II. Chemistry |
| C. Aleksey Yekimov | III. Peace |
| D. Ferenc Krausz | IV. Literature |
| | V. Physiology or Medicine |
Choose the correct answer:
1. A-III; B-IV; C-II; D-V
2. A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I
3. A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II
4. A-V; B-III; C-I; D-II
130. Which of the following statements about G-20 is/are correct?
A. India held the presidency of the G-20 from 1st December 2022 to 30th November 2023.
B. New Zealand is a member country of G-20 as of 2023.
C. G-20 is the premier forum for international humanitarian co-operation.
D. G-20 was founded in 1998.
Choose the correct answer:
1. A, B and D only
2. A and B only
3. B, C and D only
4. A only
131. Match the following Sahitya Akademi awardees in poetry for the year 2023 with the language in which they were conferred the award:
| Name of the awardee | Language |
|-----------------------------|--------------------|
| A. Vijay Verma | I. Sanskrit |
| B. Arun Ranjan Mishra | II. Kashmiri |
| C. Manshoor Banihali | III. Gujarati |
| D. Vinod Joshi | IV. Dogri |
Choose the correct answer:
1. A-IV; B-II; C-III; D-I
2. A-IV; B-II; C-I; D-III
3. A-II; B-III; C-I; D-IV
4. A-I; B-IV; C-III; D-II
132. Who amongst the following were appointed as Election Commissioners of India in March 2024?
A. Rajiv Kumar
B. Gyanesh Kumar
C. Sukhbir Singh Sandhu
D. Arun Kumar Goel
Choose the correct answer:
1. B, C and D only
2. A and C only
3. A, C and D only
4. B and C only
133. Which of the following measures did the Second Administrative Reforms Commission suggest in its reports to ensure ethics in governance?
A. Liability of corrupt public servants to pay damages
B. Protecting whistle blowers
C. Continuation of discretionary funds at the disposal of legislators
D. Restoring Official Secrets Act
Choose the correct answer:
1. A and B only
2. C and D only
3. A and C only
4. A, B and D only